1. What is XOps?
a) A new programming language
b) A methodology for integrating development, operations, and other teams
c) A framework for building serverless applications
Answer: b) A methodology for integrating development, operations, and other teams
2. What is the benefit of XOps?
a) Increased collaboration
b) Faster time to market
c) Improved quality of software
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
3. What is the role of an XOps engineer?
a) Writing code
b) Managing servers
c) Bridging the gap between development and operation teams
Answer: c) Bridging the gap between development and operation teams
4. What are the key principles of XOps?
a) Automation, collaboration, measurement, and sharing
b) Agility, speed, quality, and innovation
c) Security, scalability, reliability, and availability
Answer: a) Automation, collaboration, measurement, and sharing
5. What is continuous integration?
a) The process of continuously testing software
b) The process of continuously deploying software
c) The process of merging code changes into a shared repository
Answer: c) The process of merging code changes into a shared repository
6. What is continuous delivery?
a) The process of continuously testing software
b) The process of continuously deploying software
c) The process of merging code changes into a shared repository
Answer: b) The process of continuously deploying software
7. What is continuous deployment?
a) The process of continuously testing software
b) The process of continuously deploying software
c) The process of merging code changes into a shared repository
Answer: b) The process of continuously deploying software
8. What is the purpose of a code review?
a) To find bugs and defects
b) To improve code quality
c) To ensure adherence to coding standards
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
9. What is the difference between a physical server and a virtual server?
a) Physical servers are more expensive
b) Physical servers are faster
c) Virtual servers can be shared among multiple machines
Answer: c) Virtual servers can be shared among multiple machines
10. What is a container?
a) A physical server
b) A virtual machine
c) A lightweight, portable software package that contains code and dependencies
Answer: c) A lightweight, portable software package that contains code and dependencies
11. What is the purpose of a load balancer?
a) To distribute traffic evenly among servers
b) To improve security
c) To reduce downtime
d) All of the above
Answer: a) To distribute traffic evenly among servers
12. What is the purpose of version control?
a) To track changes to code over time
b) To enable collaboration among developers
c) To prevent conflicts between developers making changes to the same codebase
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
13. What is a DevOps pipeline?
a) The sequence of steps involved in developing, testing, and deploying software
b) The sequence of steps involved in hiring and onboarding new employees
c) The sequence of steps involved in marketing and selling software
Answer: a) The sequence of steps involved in developing, testing, and deploying software
14. What is infrastructure as code?
a) Writing code to automate the deployment and management of infrastructure
b) Writing code in a specific programming language
c) Writing code to automate the testing of software
Answer: a) Writing code to automate the deployment and management of infrastructure
15. What is a microservice?
a) A small, standalone service that performs a specific function
b) A large, monolithic application that performs multiple functions
c) A service that communicates with other services via a message bus
Answer: a) A small, standalone service that performs a specific function
16. What is a service mesh?
a) A framework for building microservices
b) A network of microservices that communicate with each other
c) A layer of infrastructure that provides service-to-service communication and monitoring
Answer: c) A layer of infrastructure that provides service-to-service communication and monitoring
17. What is chaos engineering?
a) The practice of intentionally introducing failures into a system to test its resilience
b) The practice of testing software in chaotic environments
c) The practice of testing software without proper documentation
Answer: a) The practice of intentionally introducing failures into a system to test its resilience
18. What is a canary release?
a) A small release that is tested in a production environment before a full release
b) A release that is rolled back if it causes issues in production
c) A release that is tested only in a staging environment
Answer: a) A small release that is tested in a production environment before a full release
19. What is blue-green deployment?
a) A deployment strategy that involves deploying new code alongside existing code
b) A deployment strategy that involves deploying new code on a separate infrastructure and switching traffic to it
c) A deployment strategy that involves rolling back to a previous version of code
Answer: b) A deployment strategy that involves deploying new code on a separate infrastructure and switching traffic to it
20. What is a feature flag?
a) A flag that indicates whether a feature is enabled or disabled
b) A flag that indicates whether a server is up or down
c) A flag that indicates whether code has passed tests or not
Answer: a) A flag that indicates whether a feature is enabled or disabled
21. What is a runbook?
a) A document that provides instructions for handling incidents
b) A document that provides instructions for deploying code
c) A document that provides instructions for writing code
Answer: a) A document that provides instructions for handling incidents
22. What is RTO?
a) Recovery time objective
b) Response time objective
c) Repair time objective
Answer: a) Recovery time objective
23. What is RPO?
a) Recovery point objective
b) Response point objective
c) Repair point objective
Answer: a) Recovery point objective
24. What is a service level agreement (SLA)?
a) An agreement between developers and management
b) An agreement between management and customers
c) An agreement between developers and customers
Answer: b) An agreement between management and customers
25. What is an incident?
a) Any event that could lead to a service outage or degradation
b) A specific type of issue that affects the functionality of a service
c) A serious issue that requires immediate attention
Answer: a) Any event that could lead to a service outage or degradation
26. What is a post-mortem?
a) A full investigation into the cause of an incident
b) A document that outlines the steps taken to resolve an incident
c) A document that provides instructions for handling incidents
Answer: a) A full investigation into the cause of an incident
27. What is a root cause analysis?
a) A process for identifying the underlying cause of an incident
b) A process for identifying the immediate cause of an incident
c) A process for identifying the people responsible for an incident
Answer: a) A process for identifying the underlying cause of an incident
28. What is mean time to resolution (MTTR)?
a) The average time it takes to resolve an incident
b) The maximum time it takes to resolve an incident
c) The minimum time it takes to resolve an incident
Answer: a) The average time it takes to resolve an incident
29. What is a key performance indicator (KPI)?
a) A metric that measures performance against specific goals
b) A metric that measures how much work is being done
c) A metric that measures how much time is being spent on tasks
Answer: a) A metric that measures performance against specific goals
30. What is the purpose of monitoring?
a) To detect and diagnose issues in a system
b) To prevent issues from occurring in a system
c) To improve communication between development and operations teams
Answer: a) To detect and diagnose issues in a system
31. What is a dashbaord?
a) A graphical user interface that provides an overview of key metrics
b) A document that provides instructions for handling incidents
c) A document that outlines the steps taken to resolve an incident
Answer: a) A graphical user interface that provides an overview of key metrics
32. What is a log?
a) A record of events that occurred in a system
b) A document that outlines the steps taken to resolve an incident
c) A document that provides instructions for handling incidents
Answer: a) A record of events that occurred in a system
33. What is a metric?
a) A measurement of performance or availability
b) A measurement of how much work is being done
c) A measurement of how much time is being spent on tasks
Answer: a) A measurement of performance or availability
34. What is a system under test (SUT)?
a) The system being tested
b) The system that is responsible for testing
c) The system that is being monitored
Answer: a) The system being tested
35. What is a test harness?
a) A set of tools and libraries used for testing software
b) A set of tools and libraries used for monitoring software
c) A set of tools and libraries used for logging software
Answer: a) A set of tools and libraries used for testing software
36. What is a test proxy?
a) A tool that intercepts and modifies network traffic during testing
b) A tool that logs network traffic during testing
c) A tool that monitors network traffic during testing
Answer: a) A tool that intercepts and modifies network traffic during testing
37. What is a stress test?
a) A test designed to measure how a system performs under load
b) A test designed to measure how a system performs under normal conditions
c) A test designed to measure how a system performs in a degraded state
Answer: a) A test designed to measure how a system performs under load
38. What is a smoke test?
a) A basic test to ensure that an application is functional
b) A test to ensure that an application meets specific requirements
c) A test to ensure that an application is secure
Answer: a) A basic test to ensure that an application is functional
39. What is a regression test?
a) A test designed to ensure that changes to code do not break existing functionality
b) A test designed to measure how a system performs under load
c) A test designed to ensure that an application meets specific requirements
Answer: a) A test designed to ensure that changes to code do not break existing functionality
40. What is a unit test?
a) A test that verifies that individual units of code are working correctly
b) A test that verifies that the system as a whole is working correctly
c) A test that verifies that the system meets specific requirements
Answer: a) A test that verifies that individual units of code are working correctly
41. What is integration testing?
a) A test that verifies that individual units of code are working correctly
b) A test that verifies that the system as a whole is working correctly
c) A test that verifies that the system meets specific requirements
Answer: b) A test that verifies that the system as a whole is working correctly
42. What is user acceptance testing (UAT)?
a) A test that verifies that the system meets specific requirements
b) A test that verifies that the system as a whole is working correctly
c) A test that verifies that users are satisfied with the system
Answer: c) A test that verifies that users are satisfied with the system
43. What is exploratory testing?
a) A test that follows a predetermined script
b) A test that is performed without a predetermined script
c) A test that is designed to measure how a system performs under load
Answer: b) A test that is performed without a predetermined script
44. What is static code analysis?
a) A type of testing that is performed without running the code
b) A type of testing that is performed while running the code
c) A type of testing that is performed after the code has been deployed
Answer: a) A type of testing that is performed without running the code
45. What is dynamic code analysis?
a) A type of testing that is performed while running the code
b) A type of testing that is performed without running the code
c) A type of testing that is performed after the code has been deployed
Answer: a) A type of testing that is performed while running the code
46. What is a code smell?
a) A characteristic of code that indicates a possible issue
b) A characteristic of code that indicates good design
c) A characteristic of code that indicates poorly written code
Answer: a) A characteristic of code that indicates a possible issue
47. What is continuous improvement?
a) The process of continually improving processes and systems
b) The process of continually adding features to software
c) The process of continually testing software
Answer: a) The process of continually improving processes and systems
48. What is a retrospective?
a) A meeting held after an incident to discuss the cause and how to prevent it in the future
b) A meeting held after a deployment to discuss what went well and what could be improved
c) A meeting held after testing to discuss the results
Answer: b) A meeting held after a deployment to discuss what went well and what could be improved
49. What is infrastructure as a service (IaaS)?
a) A cloud computing model in which providers offer virtualized computing resources over the internet
b) A cloud computing model in which providers offer platforms for building and deploying software
c) A cloud computing model in which providers offer software that is accessible over the internet
Answer: a) A cloud computing model in which providers offer virtualized computing resources over the internet
50. What is platform as a service (PaaS)?
a) A cloud computing model in which providers offer virtualized computing resources over the internet
b) A cloud computing model in which providers offer platforms for building and deploying software
c) A cloud computing model in which providers offer software that is accessible over the internet
Answer: b) A cloud computing model in which providers offer platforms for building and deploying software
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